Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 22.06.2025 00:29
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Why does Filipino culture dictate that parents should be treated as gods?
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
I have a "fat pussy" and I'm super self cautions about it. Do guys think it's gross?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
There's no rule.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
What is the craziest thing that you've ever witnessed?
You'll usually find your answer there.